-dan dolayı is causing a small hysteria to me. I bagged this sentence from scalpel from another thread:

         Yeni bir ayakkabı almak istediğimden dolayı ben de gitmek istedim.

Is this what we can call an adverbial clause (or gerund-equivalent)? Of course, what I am after is the case of the inlayed subject if it was a noun.

That was from me asking about the difference between the context of -den bu yana (which was new to me) or -den beri and -den dolayı. My original sentence in English was "I wanted to go also, since I wanted to get new shoes", as in "since" used as a preposition. I suppose that could be adverbial clause also?

Yeni bir ayakkabı almak istediğimden dolayı ben de gitmek istedim.

The underline part acts as an adverb so it´s adverbial clause.

-den dolayı = because of

Yeni bir ayakkabı almak istediğim = my wanting to buy a new shoe.

Yes, Mavili, it was originally your sentence. I took the freedom to borrow it because it was a clear one.

I found the information about this structure controversial (maybe I was mixing things because often -dan dolayı takes simple nouns and verbal nouns) but now it´s clear. Thanks to you, si++!

We´ve got this far in this thread:

The rule is very simple and has no exceptions:

X-genitive Y-possessive

X=Erdem or o (doesn´t mater)

Short is beautiful. Thank you, si++.

Absolutely! It´s an art to say more with less words.

This is what the dictionary says about rica etmek:

I understand who is requested is marked with ablative, what is requested with accusative, right? This is clear when we operate with noun phrases:

Rusça bilen bir arkadaştan yardım rica ediyorum.

But I am a little unsecure when it comes to the situation where a complete sentence is inlayed into a main clause with rica etmek as its predicate:

Düğün fotoğraflarını çekeceğim. > Bir arkadaşım düğün fotoğraflarını çekmemi rica etti.

Köşk sahiplerine davet mektubu gönderecekler. > Köşk sahiplerine davet mektubu göndermeleri rica edildi.

As long as the inlayed subject is a personal pronoun you just add the equivalent possessive suffix in the end of the infinitive. But if the subject is a noun is it still going take ablative ending or will it take genitive and form a possessive construction together with the infinitive? I find both alternatives:

İsteyen tüm arkadaşlar katılacaklar. > İsteyen tüm arkadaşların katılmasını rica ederim.

Başbakan daha sakin olacak. > Ben başbakandan daha sakin olmasını rica ediyorum.

Is there a difference in meaning? The genitive subject sounds more logical to me. Maybe the ablative word in the latter example is not an inlayed subject at all but a part of the main clause and the inlayed subject is (the dropped down) sg 3^rd instead?

Sorry guys, I think I answered it.

Bir sorum var. "Ben başbakandan daha sakin olmasını rica ediyorum" cümlesinde "(kendisinin) daha sakin olmasını" tümceciğinin öğelerini nasıl gösteririz. Örneğin kendisinin gizli özne, daha zarf, sakin olmasını yüklem midir? Feyza Hepçilingirlerin buna benzer çözümlemer yaptığını biliyorum. Benim ki doğru mu?

I understand from your analyse, gokuyum, that the difference is something like this (if we try sentences which are as close to one another as possible):

1) Ben [başbakanın daha sakin olmasını] rica ediyorum.

2) Ben başbakandan [daha sakin olmasını] rica ediyorum.

The hidden or visible indirect (ablative) object always belongs to the main clause, doesn’t it? If so, how does supposing it there or out of there take us any further? My idea was that in the previous example the governed clause is inlayed as a whole while in the latter the inlayed subject would actually be o/kendisi which means that the inlayed sentences would be something like

1) Başbakan daha sakin olacak.

2) O/kendisi daha sakin olacak.

Not that it matters so much to me. Actually I was just trying to translate something, got stuck and began to play with this thought.