I understand from your analyse, gokuyum, that the difference is something like this (if we try sentences which are as close to one another as possible):
1) Ben [başbakanın daha sakin olmasını] rica ediyorum.
2) Ben başbakandan [daha sakin olmasını] rica ediyorum.
The hidden or visible indirect (ablative) object always belongs to the main clause, doesn’t it? If so, how does supposing it there or out of there take us any further? My idea was that in the previous example the governed clause is inlayed as a whole while in the latter the inlayed subject would actually be o/kendisi which means that the inlayed sentences would be something like
1) Başbakan daha sakin olacak.
2) O/kendisi daha sakin olacak.
Not that it matters so much to me. Actually I was just trying to translate something, got stuck and began to play with this thought.
Let´s keep playing a little more
x-den y-ı rica et(mek)
Onlar, senden gitmeni rica ediyorlar
Sen, ondan kalmasını rica ettin
O, sizden sessiz olmanızı rica etmişti
Ben, onlardan kayıtsız kalmamalarını rica edeceğim
Both pronouns can be dropped as the personal endings in the DO and predicate are clear enough to know what is the subject and if the IO is 2nd or 3rd person..
Gitmeni rica ediyorlar (2nd per. sing. - 3rd per.plu. )
Kalmasını rica ettin (3rd per.sing - 2nd per.sing. )
Sessiz olmanızı rica etmişti (2nd per.plu. - 3rd per.sing. )
Kayıtsız kalmamalarını rica edeceğim (3rd per.plu. - 1st per.sing)
I just noticed now that DO is always in me/ma form of verb.
As for your examples.. (nr 2 ) is correct but (nr 1 ) is not
2) Başbakandan (daha sakin olmasını  rica ediyorum. (correct)
1) Ben (başbakanın daha sakin olmasını ) rica ediyorum (incorrect)
It is incorrect because the question "from who" is unanswered..
You can say
Ben (başbakanın daha sakin olmasını ) kendisinden rica ediyorum
But it doesn´t sound great.
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