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I´ve never found a real grammatical explanation of this. Just practise I´m afraid. I´m hoping some native speaker can point to a source where this is gramatically explained. =))
The question was why we use -y- with nouns but don´t with verbs in the -miş tense even when there is no apparent need to do so.. To me, it seems to be as an easy way to avoid confusion between homophones, especially between those ending in -la-, -le- which is the most popular suffix used to form verbs from nouns and "ile" which is originally a proposition, and, in the course of time, has become an instrumental suffix. Here is an example: başla.mış (verb) (işe başlamış) – başla.y.mış (noun) ( elle sanmıştım ama başlaymış.) Elle.miş, elle.y.miş/ topla.mış, topla.y.mış,etc. The other suffixes ending in a vocal and used to form nouns from verbs may also form homophones. ( -ı-, -i-, -u-, -ü- / -a-, -e- ) Here are some examples: ağrı.mış (verb) (dişi ağrımış) – ağrı.y.mış (noun) (dayanılmaz bir ağrıymış) Taşı.mış (verb) (eşyayı taşımış) – taşı.y.mış (noun) (gök taşıymış) ara.mış (verb) (kalemini aramış) – ara.y.mış (noun) (uzun bir araymış.) -se, -sa is both constructive and conditional suffix: bunu mühimse (verb)– mühimse erteleme (noun) mühimse.miş (verb) (bunu oldukça mühimsemiş) mühimse.y.miş (noun) ( bu onun için mühimseymiş gereğini yapsaymış.) In my opinion, this helping consonant -y- also helps us to distinguish between the verbs and nouns which are homophones. This is the starting point for the rule, I think..
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