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Question and Correction please
1.       GulBahar
224 posts
 22 Apr 2012 Sun 11:38 pm

Merhabalar it´s been so long since last time I´ve posted here

[IMG]http://p4.iimmgg.com/images/is9th/ba7aacd4361026fb7f667e9406613dc5.jpg[/IMG]

May I have a little help here...
For the first paragraph:
Why some verbs have normal past tense -di, while others have rivayat suffix -miş?
Is it because some of them are facts and the others quoted?

Ofcourse according to my understanding I solved the second paragraph Hopefully I haven´t done a disatster nor distroyed the language.

Thanks

2.       portakal
6 posts
 23 Apr 2012 Mon 12:32 am

merhabalar... just a humble try to help about the question...

 

The Indefinite Past Tense (-mış, muş suffixes at the end of the verbs) is used whenever the speaker has not been an eyewitness to the past events. It is also often used in telling jokes as the content of the joke is just a story. So, in story-telling we use this indefinite tense  

 

i m not sure if i told you something you already dont know  

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