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1st person possessive and to be is the same
1.       denizli
970 posts
 23 Jul 2013 Tue 02:39 pm

I noticed that 1st person possessive and ´to be´ is the same, when the word ends in a vowel.How do you know the difference? I can´t think of many examples but, ´my lady´ and ´I´m a lady´.

Edited (7/23/2013) by denizli [consanant not vowel]
Edited (7/23/2013) by denizli

2.       Umut_Umut
485 posts
 23 Jul 2013 Tue 04:14 pm

 

Quoting denizli

I noticed that 1st person possessive and ´to be´ is the same, when the word ends in a vowel.How do you know the difference? I can´t think of many examples but, ´my lady´ and ´I´m a lady´.

 

That´s right. But  when the word doesn´t end with a vowel. 

We know the difference from the meaing of the sentence. And 1st person posssesive suffix mostly use with "benim".  

 

3.       si++
3785 posts
 23 Jul 2013 Tue 05:49 pm

 

Quoting denizli

I noticed that 1st person possessive and ´to be´ is the same, when the word ends in a vowel.How do you know the difference? I can´t think of many examples but, ´my lady´ and ´I´m a lady´.

 

Stress is dfferent. That way you can differentiate it.

 

For example (with stressed syllable in red):

Çocuğum = I am a kid

Çocuğum = My kid

 

And even,

Çocuğum = hey kid

denizli and Abla liked this message
4.       gokuyum
5050 posts
 23 Jul 2013 Tue 11:08 pm

 

Quoting si++

 

 

Stress is dfferent. That way you can differentiate it.

 

For example (with stressed syllable in red):

Çocuğum = I am a kid

Çocuğum = My kid

 

And even,

Çocuğum = hey kid

This is way stressful for me.

 

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