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Two pennies for your thoughts ....!!
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5320. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 03:27 pm |
"have you money" is simple present tense, the verb is "have".
"have you got money" is present perfect tense, the verb is "get".
there is nothing wrong with it.
Understand you this sentence? Maybe, understand I have got not...
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5321. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 03:59 pm |
Understand you this sentence? Maybe, understand I have got not...
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5322. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 08:44 pm |
Understand you this sentence? Maybe, understand I have got not...
check your english grammar book and you will understand it (hopefully)
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5323. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 09:55 pm |
check your english grammar book and you will understand it (hopefully)
Where is the problem? The first sentence is in simple present and the second in present perfect just as you suggested...
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5324. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 09:58 pm |
Where is the problem? The first sentence is in simple present and the second in present perfect just as you suggested...
and what`s so problematic with that?
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5325. |
26 Aug 2009 Wed 11:32 pm |
"have you money" is simple present tense, the verb is "have".
"have you got money" is present perfect tense, the verb is "get".
there is nothing wrong with it.
Have you got money? = Do you have money?
is different in meaning and gramatical tense from
Have you got money? = Have you acquired/obtained money?
You´re correct in the context of the 2nd sentence.
Vineyards was referring to the redundant use of "got" in first.
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5326. |
27 Aug 2009 Thu 12:08 am |
Have you got money? = Do you have money?
is different in meaning and gramatical tense from
Have you got money? = Have you acquired/obtained money?
You´re correct in the context of the 2nd sentence.
Vineyards was referring to the redundant use of "got" in first.
what I mean is they are just gramatically correct. I wasn`t referring to the use of the word "got". Even when its use is concerned it sounds quite right to me.
"I have got money" means I have acquired money and I still have it.
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5327. |
27 Aug 2009 Thu 01:48 am |
Something that´s always puzzled me - - why do Americans always say ´I COULD care less´ when they don´t give a damn about something? In ´British English´ we say ´I COULDN´T care less´.
If you say ´I COULD care less´ surely it means that you haven´t yet reached the bottom of your non-caringness and therefore a little bit of you does still care. But if you say ´I COULDN´T care less´ then it means that you have reached the bottom of your caringness and have no care left! That makes much more sense don´t you think?
Silly bed Americans! 

It shows that we could care less, if we cared to, but we do not actually care anymore (it´s not worth the effort), even though there are still some dregs left in the bottom of the bag.
Instead we are NOT going to care at all...............it´s implied....
Edited (8/27/2009) by alameda
[spell]
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5328. |
27 Aug 2009 Thu 02:50 am |
Of course, they are grammatically correct. There is no doubt about it. Though perfectly valid for all intents and purposes, there are certain words, phrases or sometimes entire sentences borrowed from other languages. The structure in question for example contains words that entered the language from old Germanic dialects. When this is the case, more than often specific rules such as those applying to conjugation, pluralization etc are also imported. We have many examples to that in Turkish too. For example, the words : nizam, tanzim, intizam, muntazam are all derived from the same root and are conjugated according to the rules of the Arabic language. Through extensive usage, we (at least until lately) used these variations as if it were the most natural thing to conjugate words like that.
Political, religious or other influences temporarily open a window into another language. The words or usages that came through that window may or may not last. If you checked out a Turkish dictionary belonging to some 50 years ago, you would be amazed at the number of Arabic and Persian words. Many of them however have now disappeared. The birth and the divergence of other dialects of English might be signalling a new phase of development driven mostly by the internal dynamics of the English language.
Not long ago, before Roger Ascham and other (patriotic!) educators initiated the education reform in England, French and Latin were primarily used in education. It is through their efforts that English has gained the support of its own people. Similar things can be said of the Finnish,Greek, Bulgarian and Hungarian languages. In all these countries, the patriotic sentiment was instrumental in the revival of the domestic tongues.
what I mean is they are just gramatically correct. I wasn`t referring to the use of the word "got". Even when its use is concerned it sounds quite right to me.
"I have got money" means I have acquired money and I still have it.
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5329. |
27 Aug 2009 Thu 10:55 am |
God must have created British English to be spoken by a woman. What they call as The Standard English is a language so eloquent and so nice to hear, well, as long as it is spoken by a lady. It seems that about the time when English was winning over Dutch, the early settlers decided they would sound ridiculously soft when they blew somebody´s head off and, discarded all the exquisite aspects of the language.
In British English too, there are certain phrases that sound wrong. One of them is "have got" or "have"
indicating possession. The Brits say "have you money" or "have you got money". God only knows how come "got" got there or why a "special" auxiliary is needed when a simple verb would suffice.
´Have you money?´ sounds completely weird to me! - You could say ´Do you have money?´ or as you said ´Have you got money?´ both - to me - would translate as ´are you wealthy?´ rather than ´have you any cash on you?´ 
´Got´ is a strange word (and I´m sure some Turks are sniggering now!) and I have no idea how it ´got´ into the English vocabulary. Why do we say ´I´ve got to go now´ meaning ´I must go now´? (another strange thing we tend to say is ´I´m going to go now´ - what´s wrong with ´I´m going now´? - why stick the infinitive in there?)
I think we use ´get/got´ so much because it´s a lazy way of avoioding longer words 
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5330. |
27 Aug 2009 Thu 12:18 pm |
´Have you money?´ sounds completely weird to me! - You could say ´Do you have money?´ or as you said ´Have you got money?´ both - to me - would translate as ´are you wealthy?´ rather than ´have you any cash on you?´ 
´Got´ is a strange word (and I´m sure some Turks are sniggering now!) and I have no idea how it ´got´ into the English vocabulary. Why do we say ´I´ve got to go now´ meaning ´I must go now´? (another strange thing we tend to say is ´I´m going to go now´ - what´s wrong with ´I´m going now´? - why stick the infinitive in there?)
I think we use ´get/got´ so much because it´s a lazy way of avoioding longer words 
Check your grammer book, hopefully you will understand.
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