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gidip dönüp ?
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20.       mylo
856 posts
 30 Nov 2009 Mon 05:25 am

This has been well explained but it goes like this whack the suffix ´ip´ on the end of a word carry one and the ´ip´ part basically replaces the ´ve´ part good luck

21.       si++
3785 posts
 30 Nov 2009 Mon 10:37 am

 

Quoting upsy_daisy

 

 

 

Make sense si++, there is no ve but still 17 loanwords (32%):

 

aşk- arabic-noun

divane – persian- adj.

gah – persian – adverb

dert- persian – noun

ciğer – persian- noun

şeyh- arabic-noun

ya-persian-particle

gurbet-arabic-noun

hal-arabic-noun

mecnun – arabic- adj.

yar – persian - noun

melul – arabic – adj.

miskin-arabic-adj.

biçare – persian- adj.

dost-persian-noun

avare- persian – adj.

vasl- arabic- adj.



Do you think he didn’t use ve with the same reason as yours?

 

My example was quite different from yours. Did I say every poem must have ve in it? What I said was that if you removed ve-s from that poem,it would be dried.Right? You are confusing things a little perhaps?

 

It is clear that you don’t know much about loanwords in Turkish.

 

 

So what? I mentioned Yunus Emre because he used the collequial language mostly in his poems. He may have used many loan words but not any "ve" at all.

 

Anothere example is Aşık Veysel. Can you find any "ve" in his poems?

 

And by the way you can have no idea of how much I know about loanwords in Turkish. I am curious of what makes you think you know more than me. Sidik yarışı mı yapıyoruz?

 

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