i have a male friend in turkey who is on ramadan. he is quite a strict muslim and always follows the religion. he was drinking tea during daytime a few days ago, in ramadan, which i thought muslims were not allowed to do whilst fasting. i did ask him but he said there was quite a long explanation but didnt tell me so i really want to know why this is! he works at a hotel and is on night shift (i dont think this has anything to do with it though!) any suggestions would be great i would love to know, thanks

The ruling is quite simple and I don´t understand what there is to explain. Either he was sick, he was on a journey (in which cases he will have to fast the missing days later) or he had just given up. Even if he had done it inadvertendly which sometimes happens to fasters he could have just continued the day as if nothing happened.

he wasnt sick, on a journey or given up- thats why i couldnt understand it. i was just curious that was all. thabks for your reply anway

It is like for the cathiolics, they should be fasting for the 40 days of Lent which was rigorouresly prescribed by the church but now they only required us to fast on Ash Wednesday and Good Friday.  I work with 4 Muslims and they each have their way of observing Ramadan, it depends on how devoted they are, the same as with Catholics, the more devoted ones respect the fasting others don´t.

"there is quite a long explnation" often means there is no explanation I think the explanation was not about being allowed to drink tea whilst fasting but about the reason why he was noıt fasting that day.

oo ok i suppose that makes sense really. i just thought that there was going to be be a more in depth kind of reason, but there must not be! thank you for all your replies though

There are subtler conditions under which one may suddenly find himself disqualified for fasting.

Conditions such as...

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