The Persian origin hiç on its own or combined with other material makes adverbs, adjectives and pronouns. The following list is from Göksel – Gerslake 2005:
hiç ‘never’, ‘ever’, ‘at all’
hiçbir (+ noun phrase) ‘no/any…’
hiçbiri(si) ‘none/any (of)…’
hiçbir şey ‘nothing’, ‘anything’
hiçbir yer ‘nowhere’, ‘anywhere’
hiçbir zaman ‘never’, ‘ever’
hiçbir koşulda, hiçbir koşul/ şart altında, hiçbir durumda ‘under no/any circumstances’
kimse/hiç kimse/hiçbir kimse ‘no one’, ‘anyone’
If one of the above expressions interacting with negation is in an equivalent of an English subclause the verb of this subclause has to have negative marking:
[Ortalıkta hiç iz bırak|ma|yan] hırsız, yandaki evi de soymuş. ‘The burglar who didn’t leave any traces has also burgled the house next door.’
There is one exception to this rule:
When the subclause functions as a noun in the main clause the negative marking can be in the main clause predicate:
[Kimsenin bu kitabı okuduğu]-nu san|mı|yorum. ‘I don’t think anyone has read this book.’
What about these options? Would they be correct?
?[Kimsenin bu kitabı oku|ma|dığı]-nı sanıyorum.
?[Kimsenin bu kitabı oku|ma|dığı]-nı san|mı|yorum.
(I understand the meaning changes if we change the negation pattern, I am merely asking if the ? sentences are grammatical or not, i.e. if I have understood the rule.)
Questions with hiç or kimse are an exception to the exception: kimse in the subclause, affirmative main clause:
[Kimsenin kapıyı çaldığın]-ı duydun mu? ‘Did you hear anyone ring the door bell?’
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